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If a1= 1 and an+1 – 3an +  2 = 4n for every positive integer n, then a100 equals 

Answer : Option C

Explanation:

a1= 1

an+1 = 4n + 3an– 2

a2 = 4 + 3(1) – 2 = 5 = 32– 4

a3 = 4(2) + 3(5) – 2 = 21 = 33– 6

a4 = 4(3) + 3(21) – 2 = 73 = 34– 8

∴  an = 3n – 2(n)

∴ a100 3100– 200

Hence, option 3.

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Ramanjaneyulu s

Thank you

Sudhakar

Thans For Giving Solution

Pavan Jaiswal

This Solution is very simple thanks for giving video solution.its very eay for understood.

Ramanjaneyulu s

Thank you

Sudhakar

Thans For Giving Solution

Pavan Jaiswal

This Solution is very simple thanks for giving video solution.its very eay for understood.